There are way too many holes in this.
In the list of people being charged, every single one includes selling a firearm to a convicted felon. However, no one is charged with weapons possession as a convicted felon. So who’s the felon that they sold to and why hasn’t he been charged? Can the BATFE prove that they knew he/she was a convicted felon before selling the firearm? If they can, how? If the convicted felon was a plant placed there by the BATFE, then the defense’s case has already been made: The BATFE was setting them up, which is illegal! One more thing to add to the list of charges against that rogue agency.
They also accuse them of selling weapons for profit without a license. However, that’s also a tricky one. To prove that, they need to prove that these people were intentionally buying guns for the purpose of selling them at a higher price. If they bought and sold the guns at around their market value, then they were not selling them for profit. If they bought them for themselves, decided they didn’t want to keep them, and then sold them, then they were not trying to profit off it. If a BATFE agent sold a gun to one of them at a steep discount, and then another BATFE agent offered to buy it from him at the market value, then the case could again be made that the BATFE agents were setting them up. And again, that’s another one to add to the BATFE’s rap sheet.
I’m very curious to see how this plays out. Last time the BATFE pulled one of these stunts, it backfired in their face like nobody’s business when a newspaper (Milwaukee, I think) did an expose on their criminal-manufacturing enterprise.
*Correction: Two of them were convicted felons. Still, how can the BATFE prove that they knew the other was a convicted felon, or that any of the others knew they were convicted felons?