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To: Mechanicos
So, because the Enclave Clause (Article I, Section 8), which establishes the District of Columbia establishes the District of Columbia, Article IV, Section 3 is meaningless?

Why doesn't Article IV, Section 3 make Article I, Section 8 meaningless?

54 posted on 04/19/2014 12:39:01 PM PDT by 1rudeboy
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To: 1rudeboy

Aaaaah - so you WERE meaning to cause a fight. You also are guilty of the very thing you complained of earlier. That is NOT what was meant by the post - AND YOU KNOW IT!

Are you shilling for BLM. USFS, Harry Reid or all of the above?


60 posted on 04/19/2014 12:42:03 PM PDT by GilesB
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To: 1rudeboy

Why doesn’t Article IV, Section 3 make Article I, Section 8 meaningless?******

Because they don’t conflict.

The properties which Art 4, Sec 3 refers to as fedgov owned can only be owned by the feds in accordance with the enclave clause. Said properties can only be owned by the feds for those specifically enumerated purposes stated in Art I, Sec 8 which have been stated on this forum ad nauseum.

Once those requirements are met then Art 4, Sec 3 is applicable.


91 posted on 04/19/2014 1:04:34 PM PDT by bereanway
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To: 1rudeboy

Its not meaningless, they have to be read in conjunction with each other and as always the specific overrides the general.

Nonetheless, the enclave clause as you can see does more then the District - it tells what is allowed and how to obtain it from within the States.


101 posted on 04/19/2014 1:14:58 PM PDT by Mechanicos (When did we amend the Constitution for a 2nd Federal Prohibition?)
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