So amd, are you saying Jesus would be fine with a sex pervert seducing a 14 year old girl, or what?
I already said that Jesus was opposed to homosexuality. He was also opposed to adultery. There would be any number of criteria whereby Jesus would have objected to what went down with these two - but he wouldn’t have seen either one as a “child” so the quote about the millstone wouldn’t be applicable and it is a total misrepresentation of the meaning of the Bible to say that he would consider one a “child”.
Do you think the Bible is a “living document” to be interpreted by the standards of today - or do we go with original intent?