No tearing necessary - Sharia isn't covered by the First Amendment.
Why? Because Sharia is a law. It's not a religion. It's a legal system that would use the 1A to ban the 1A. There is zero possibility that the 1A was created to allow its own annulment. Zero.
And I haven't even gotten into Sharia's women-as-property thing. Or do you think disallowing that would "tear a hole" in the 13th Amendment?