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Border agent indicted for violating illegal alien's rights [civil rights violation??!!]
Examiner.com ^ | April 20, 2012 | Jim Kouri

Posted on 04/20/2012 2:06:37 PM PDT by kevcol

--snip--

In almost total secrecy, the Obama Justice Department has charged a U.S. Border Patrol agent, Luis Fonseca, for depriving the rights of a yet to be identified illegal alien at the Border Patrol station located on Imperial Beach, California, last July. Fonseca, however, was not indicted until a week ago.

Agent Fonseca, 32, allegedly kneed and choked an unidentified alien during his tour near the Mexican border last summer. During his arraignment on Monday April 16, he entered a not guilty plea.

A grand jury had handed down the indictment on April 12, but details were withheld and the DOJ neglected to promulgate why the legal action was taken against the Border Patrol agent, according to an "Inside-the-Beltway" public-interest group that investigates and exposes government corruption and misconduct.

"Border Patrol Agent Fonseca kneed and choked an unidentified alien, depriving him of the right under the Constitution and the laws of the United States to be free from use of unreasonable force by a law enforcement officer," the U.S. Attorney's Office said in a statement.

According to Department of Justice’s records, a federal grand jury indicted Fonseca on a single charge of deprivation of rights under color of law. The charge, a civil rights violation, carries a maximum sentence of 10 years imprisonment.

rest of article: http://www.examiner.com/article/border-agent-indicted-for-violating-illegal-alien-s-rights#ixzz1scH59nfG

(Excerpt) Read more at examiner.com ...


TOPICS: Crime/Corruption; News/Current Events; US: California
KEYWORDS: aliens; border; borderwars; corruption; illegalscivilrights; llegalscivilrights
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To: Ajnin
Clearly such legislation would be immoral and unlawful.

How can legislation be "unlawful" unless it violates the Constitution?

41 posted on 04/21/2012 9:04:46 PM PDT by Lurking Libertarian
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To: Ajnin
giving illegal aliens constitutional rights is clearly destructive to this country.

To quote Justice Scalia, "it is a truism that constitutional rights have costs."

42 posted on 04/21/2012 9:07:55 PM PDT by Lurking Libertarian (Non sub homine, sed sub Deo et lege)
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To: Lurking Libertarian

To quote me, “The founders never intended the constitution to be a suicide pact.”


43 posted on 04/21/2012 10:51:40 PM PDT by Ajnin (Neca eos omnes. Deus suos agnocet!)
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To: Lurking Libertarian
How can legislation be "unlawful" unless it violates the Constitution?

Perhaps I misspoke. Maybe it isn't unlawful.

44 posted on 04/21/2012 10:54:26 PM PDT by Ajnin (Neca eos omnes. Deus suos agnocet!)
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To: Lurking Libertarian
But the Citizenship Clause is not the only clause in the 14th Amendment. The Due Process Clause of the 14th Amendment, by distinction, protects not "citizens" but "any person." Aren't illegal aliens "persons"? Or are they vegetables? Or animals?

Illegal aliens are person's of other countries unprotected by our constitution. Illegal aliens are criminals that have no allegiance to this country, therefore it makes no senses to give them constitutional rights so they can shit all over us and destroy our nation.

Perhaps you could explain why it is you like the idea of illegal aliens having Constitutional rights.

45 posted on 04/21/2012 11:24:22 PM PDT by Ajnin (Neca eos omnes. Deus suos agnocet!)
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To: Ajnin
Perhaps you could explain why it is you like the idea of illegal aliens having Constitutional rights.

Because I believe in the Constitution and I believe it should be enforced as written.

The Framers of the Constitution knew how to use the word "citizen" when they intended to talk about citizens. E.g., Article I, section 2 (a member of the House of Representatives must have "been seven Years a Citizen of the United States.") They also knew how to use broader words when they wished to include people who weren't citizens. E.g., the Fifth Amendment ("nor shall any person... be deprived of life, liberty or property without due process of law") or the Sixth Amendment ("In all criminal prosecutions, the accused shall enjoy the right...").

If the Fifth and Sixth Amendment only apply to citizens, why did they use the words "any person" or "the accused" and not "any citizen" or "the accused citizen"? Why did the Sixth Amendment talk about "all criminal prosecutions" if, according to you, it only means "some criminal prosecutions" (the ones where the defendant is a citizen)?

I thought it was liberals who pick and choose which parts of the Constitution they want to enforce. For my part, I'd like to see all of it enforced the way the Framers wrote it.

46 posted on 04/22/2012 12:37:30 PM PDT by Lurking Libertarian (Non sub homine, sed sub Deo et lege)
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