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To: Robert A. Cook, PE
My understanding is that by 540AD the Roman Empire was already no longer existed...Europe was already broken down into hundreds of principalities. The barbarians had already sacked most of Western Europe by this time. However, there were still some educated people (mostly old Roman nobles who intermarried with the barbarians) to leave written records of this period.

After the event of 536-541AD, the lights truly go out. After another hundred or so years, not even Kings could read or write.

46 posted on 02/04/2004 7:48:32 AM PST by dg62
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To: dg62
"After another hundred or so years, not even Kings could read or write. "

Yup. I've read that the kings had writers and readers and the writers could not read and the readers could not write. (Doesn't make a lot of sense but, that's what I read)

Our custom of reading wills aloud comes from that period. Everything official used to be read aloud because so few could read.

49 posted on 02/04/2004 9:27:52 AM PST by blam
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To: dg62; All
"After the event of 536-541AD, the lights truly go out. After another hundred or so years, not even Kings could read or write."


A comet must have hit the US public school system then!


63 posted on 04/25/2004 1:01:51 AM PDT by mdmathis6 (The Democrats must be defeated in 2004...." MDMATHIS6, The Anti-Democrat")
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To: dg62

The eastern half of the Roman Empire was still pretty much intact, and in fact had reconquered parts of the western half. However, the reconquests never really took root (except perhaps for the north African provinces, which they held until the Arabs came through a century later).


69 posted on 01/11/2007 9:33:06 AM PST by steve-b (It's hard to be religious when certain people don't get struck by lightning.)
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To: dg62
>>>>>>After the event of 536-541AD, the lights truly go out. After another hundred or so years, not even Kings could read or write. <<<<<<<<

This is something we all learned in school. However, some ten years ago, before widespread internet I have been told by a medieval scholar that this is not true, that written records of "dark ages" do exist but are left to linger in the shade, or deliberatelly put aside.

Can anyone elaborate if this is true or not?

70 posted on 01/11/2007 9:39:06 AM PST by DTA (Mr. President., Condy is asleep at the wheel !)
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To: dg62
>>>>>>After the event of 536-541AD, the lights truly go out. After another hundred or so years, not even Kings could read or write. <<<<<<<<

This is something we all learned in school. However, some ten years ago, before widespread internet I have been told by a medieval scholar that this is not true, that written records of "dark ages" do exist but are left to linger in the shade, or deliberatelly put aside.

Can anyone elaborate if this is true or not?

71 posted on 01/11/2007 9:39:07 AM PST by DTA (Mr. President., Condy is asleep at the wheel !)
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To: dg62
After the event of 536-541AD, the lights truly go out. After another hundred or so years, not even Kings could read or write.

I don't think the non-Roman kings could either, even while the empire still lasted. In any case, pinning the Middle Ages on this one event seems highly speculative to me, considering that Rome had been declining since the 3rd century and, indeed, had finally evaporated from western Europe nearly a century before. The Byzantine Empire trucked on strong for another thousand years, in spite of this event, and if literature withered into the monasteries in a form that usually represented itself only in saints' lives and biblical commentaries, it just continued a trend that had been ongoing for centuries previous. Very little important Roman or Greek literature was written after the 2nd century.

77 posted on 01/11/2007 10:25:20 AM PST by SpringheelJack
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