Roos_Girl wrote:
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https://www.yahoo.com/news/unconventional-18-inside-book-details-000000315.html
It wouldn’t be “rigging” anything, conscience clause has been standard for over 100 years.”
When’s the last time enough delegates broke the “legally-bound-on-first-ballot” rule, when a candidate had over the required amount of delegates before the convention?
Not when someone didn’t have enough before the convention, but when they did have enough beforehand.
“When’s the last time enough delegates broke the “legally-bound-on-first-ballot” rule, when a candidate had over the required amount of delegates before the convention?”
Well, first of all, if you read the article you would see that there are a couple of court cases cited and the rulings in those cases are that state laws regarding voting cannot supercede the private entity of the RNC rules for voting for a nominee. So, there is no “legally bound on the first ballot”.
Second of all, enough delegates for what? To allow someone else to win the nomination rather than the person who was the presumptive nominee because of the number of state delegates they won is what I assume you mean? I do not know the answer to that question. But, if you’re that curious you could do the research and let us know. I would be interested to know the answer.
But, you understand there are technically right now no required number of delegates because the rules for this convention have not been written yet. Just as there is a presumptive nominee there are also a presumptive number of required delegates. For example, the rules committee could decide the nominee needs 2000 delegates to win the nomination, which would then lead to another contested convention.