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God-breathed
Bible Versions, Your Questions Answered ^ | 2002 | David W Daniels

Posted on 03/05/2003 4:44:04 PM PST by Commander8

QUESTION: Why does the KJV translate "theopneustos" in 2. Ti. 3:16 as "inspired" rather than "God-breathed"? "God-breathed" is a more literal and accurate translation, it seems to me, as per the NIV. Any thoughts?

(Excerpt) Read more at chick.com ...


TOPICS: Evangelical Christian; General Discusssion; History
KEYWORDS: av1611; niv; noahwebster; theopneustos

1 posted on 03/05/2003 4:44:04 PM PST by Commander8
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To: Commander8; Wrigley; CCWoody; Jael; Tantumergo; Jean Chauvin
God breathed OR given by inspiration... Both are reasonable translations. The former is more word for word and retains the figurative flavor, the later is less figurative.

The link says,
"Simply because pneustos could be translated “breathed” does not mean it should be translated that way. The King James Bible gives the accurate meaning of the word. What did God do? Did He breathe the scriptures onto scrolls? No, but He inspired every word that His specially chosen people wrote. The word “inspired” (Latin for “in-breathed,” similar to pneustos) is more easily understood."

So should the translator always seek to clarify the sense of figurative language? I don't think so.

Thy word is a lamp unto my feet, and a light unto my path. -- Psa. 119:105

Should we retranslate lamp and light to clarify the figurative nature of these statements? No, let the flavor of the text remain!

2 posted on 03/05/2003 5:02:16 PM PST by drstevej
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To: drstevej
I used to use the NIV exclusively, but I almost am boycotting it now, mostly because of the gender-bender TNIV they are making.

Having said that, though, my pastor gave a detailed description of why "God-breathed" is the most accurate.

Having said THAT, though, we use the NASB as the pew/pastor Bible in our church.
3 posted on 03/07/2003 7:09:47 AM PST by fishtank
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