Posted on 03/05/2003 4:44:04 PM PST by Commander8
QUESTION: Why does the KJV translate "theopneustos" in 2. Ti. 3:16 as "inspired" rather than "God-breathed"? "God-breathed" is a more literal and accurate translation, it seems to me, as per the NIV. Any thoughts?
(Excerpt) Read more at chick.com ...
The link says,
"Simply because pneustos could be translated breathed does not mean it should be translated that way. The King James Bible gives the accurate meaning of the word. What did God do? Did He breathe the scriptures onto scrolls? No, but He inspired every word that His specially chosen people wrote. The word inspired (Latin for in-breathed, similar to pneustos) is more easily understood."
So should the translator always seek to clarify the sense of figurative language? I don't think so.
Thy word is a lamp unto my feet, and a light unto my path. -- Psa. 119:105
Should we retranslate lamp and light to clarify the figurative nature of these statements? No, let the flavor of the text remain!
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