“Do I understand you to say that Christ’s ‘coming unto His Kingdom’ was SIX DAYS after his utterance of ‘Some of you shall not have tasted of death before the Son of Man comes unto His Kingdom.’?”
Not exactly. Christ returning to establish His kingdom is only an event that brings this kingdom to fruition. He taught that the kingdom of God was already within His disciples and was invisible. Yet, His kingdom will become manifest in the external, visible reality when He returns “with power and great glory.” The transfiguration foreshadows this visible establishment of the Kingdom and Christ being exalted in His glory on the earth.
I think what Christ said may be a prophecy with a dual fulfillment, as many Biblical prophecies are. For example, the Olivet Discourse prophesied some events that happened in 70 A.D. while others have not happened yet. I think “some who are standing here will not taste death before they see the Son of Man coming in his kingdom” may refer to both the transfiguration and that at least one eye-witness will return to give his testimony at the end of the age, before Christ returns. If so, I suggest that John is the best candidate.
Prophecies do not tell us everything that is going to happen, but they do confirm that God was in control of the outcome and things have worked out according to His plan when viewed in retrospect. I am not suggesting that John or anyone else who was standing there MUST return like Elijah in order to fulfill Christ’s words, but I do think that this or something similar is what will happen.
We know Elijah is going to come before the Day of the Lord:
Malachi 4:5 (NKJV)
Behold, I will send you Elijah the prophet
Before the coming of the great and dreadful day of the Lord.
It is not unreasonable to think John might also return as one of the two witnesses, along with Elijah. There are a number of scriptures that support this. However, just to clarify, what I am saying is highly speculative. I’m NOT purporting it to be a Biblical doctrine that everyone must adhere to. It is just my opinion. Nothing more.
Do I understand you correctly? Christ's "loophole" was that John didn't TECHNICALLY "taste of Death" (but was rather "transfigured" or some-such?), thus making Christ's claim "some of you shall not taste of Death") veridical?
QUESTION: Who in the room to whom he was speaking, whose SINCERE question he was answering, had the slightest idea that He could have meant that?
If most of them understood His utterance instead to mean, "50-60 years (normal remaining human life-expectancy of those present), tops!", then was Christ deliberately misleading them?
Regards,