Because it means Luther didn’t ‘take books out of the Bible’ if the dogmatic decree was issued after his death, which it was.
False premise. The accepted Catholic Bible included the Deuterocanonical books since the 4th century, and this even without a dogmatic decree. There was no dogmatic decree limiting the priesthood to men until Pope John Paul II's Ordinatio sacerdotalis in 1994. But who would say that Catholics only started to limit the priesthood to men in that year. There was no dogmatic decree on the canon of the Bible until Trent because there was no need for one; the Deuterocanonical books were accepted by Catholics as part of the Bible. In eliminating them from his canon Luther did, indeed, take books out of what was recognized by Catholics as the Bible.
Paul says what??
The accepted Catholic Bible included the Deuterocanonical books since the 4th century, and this even without a dogmatic decree. There was no dogmatic decree on the canon of the Bible until Trent because there was no need for one; the Deuterocanonical books were accepted by Catholics as part of the Bible.
Again, as daniel1212 has shown this is not an accurate statement.
Wrong again.
Luther’s Roman contemporaries were ‘taking books out of the Bible’ just like Luther was, and you aren’t condemning them, are you? Most of them the same books even.
The only explanation is that Rome allowed such things until Trent.