By appealing to these, and only these, He was defining the accepted canon being used by the Jews.
And my original question remains unanswered: Who has the authority to determine the canon?
God moved the early ekklesia to recognize the authoritative books we have in the Bible today.
As I showed above, in the context of the passage he was doing no such thing. To persist in such fanciful eisegesis is beneath you, eagleone.
"God moved the early ekklesia to recognize the authoritative books we have in the Bible today."
By "early ekklesia" I presume you mean the early Church. The one founded by Jesus Christ which historically and logically is the Catholic Church.
So, in light of that let me ask you another question (although my original question was left unanswered): How did this "recognition" by the Early Church of the canon work, and who had the authority to do the recognizing and make the final determination? Did everyone just kind of vote on it? Where and when did this happen? And how did it become binding on all Christians and by whose authority?
As a Catholic, I have good reason to accept the 73 books in my Bible (and you can read about it in the references I recommended above). Non-Catholics, on the other hand, have no real way, other than by the authority of the Catholic Church, to even know definitively what goes in their Bibles. The table of contents in our modern Bibles are added by publishers and are not part of the inspired text. There is no "inspired table of contents." This is an insolvable dilemma for Protestants, especially if one holds to the man-made doctrine of Sola Scriptura. Faulty eisegegis and historical revisionism just won't do on such a critical issue.