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To: Bayard
"the intent to consecrate"

That's my dilemma....It is the the intent to consecrate, for an evil purpose.

Given the overarching intent is evil it seems the "consecration" doesn't occur.

7 posted on 05/09/2019 10:59:21 AM PDT by G Larry (There is no great virtue in bargaining with the Devil)
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To: G Larry

But a stolen Host would be possible, sold for abuse.

So, why would the diocese NOT be alarmed,and why are they NOT protesting?

What Will Francis do?


8 posted on 05/09/2019 11:51:24 AM PDT by Robert A Cook PE (The democrats' national goal: One world social-communism under one world religion: Atheistic Islam.)
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To: G Larry
I don't think it requires godly purposes. A priest in mortal sin can consecrate, even, if he (however obscurely) intends to "do what the Church does."

This is important, because it is not the priest of his personal worthiness who accomplishes the miracle: otherwise, none of the faithful would *ever* know if they were receiving the true consecrated Body-Blood-Soul-Divinity or not, due to the fact that nobody could know whether a priest might be harboring some secret mortal sin.

This is moral realism. Yes, even Judas could have consecrated validly.

13 posted on 05/09/2019 1:43:53 PM PDT by Mrs. Don-o (To fear the Lord is to hate evil: I hate pride & arrogance, evil behavior & perverse speech. Pr 8:13)
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