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Cardinal Burke: ‘Discernment Does not Decide What is Right or Wrong’
LifeSite News ^ | 5/12/17 | Lisa Bourne

Posted on 09/16/2017 6:34:09 PM PDT by marshmallow

September 12, 2017 (LifeSiteNews) – The only way a Catholic priest can allow divorced and civilly remarried Catholics to receive Holy Communion is if they forgo sexual relations, Cardinal Raymond Burke reaffirmed.

Practicing sexual continence, as the Church requires in a new relationship when a marriage has not been annulled, properly recognizes that marriage, he said.

“The only case in which a priest could admit a person living in an irregular matrimonial union to receive the Sacraments of Penance and Holy Eucharist is the case of a couple who agree to live ‘as brother and sister,’" Cardinal Burke said, “that is to respect the marriage to which they are bound by not living in a marital way with another person.”

In a recent interview with the Hungarian independent Catholic news service Katolikus Válasz, the cardinal also clarified that the “internal forum” cannot be used to determine the nullity of a marriage.

The concept of the “internal forum” has been regularly bandied about since its use at the Synods on the Family preceding Pope Francis’ controversial apostolic exhortation Amoris Laetitia.

In discussions at the Synods and since then, it has been argued that the internal forum — private discussion with a confessor — could provide context where a penitent, presumably arguing his or her subjective culpability in their objectively sinful situation is limited, could be allowed to return to the sacraments.

The Hungarian outlet asked Cardinal Burke if there are cases where the internal forum can be used to legitimately recognize the invalidity of the first marriage and provide access to the sacraments.

“Such cases do not exist,” Cardinal Burke responded. “No priest has the authority to declare a marriage null in the internal forum.”

(Excerpt) Read more at lifesitenews.com ...


TOPICS: Catholic; Ministry/Outreach; Moral Issues
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1 posted on 09/16/2017 6:34:10 PM PDT by marshmallow
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To: marshmallow

This is an honest question concerning Catholic doctrine...

I marry wife #1. She divorces me. I marry wife #2. We then become Catholic. According to Catholic doctrine, I must live with wife #2 in a sexless relationship in order to receive communion. If wife #1 dies, am I then free to enter into sexual relationship with wife #2 and also receive communion, or is the sexless marriage required in perpetuity?


2 posted on 09/16/2017 6:40:18 PM PDT by chajin ("There is no other name under heaven given among people by which we must be saved." Acts 4:12)
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To: chajin

It’s my understanding that once Wife #1 dies, you are then free to live a conventional married life.


3 posted on 09/16/2017 6:44:34 PM PDT by DuncanWaring (The Lord uses the good ones; the bad ones use the Lord.)
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To: DuncanWaring

That would certaimly seem to support a black market murder racket.


4 posted on 09/16/2017 6:47:02 PM PDT by Secret Agent Man ( Gone Galt; Not averse to Going Bronson.)
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To: Secret Agent Man

Out of the frying pan, into the fire.


5 posted on 09/16/2017 6:51:46 PM PDT by DuncanWaring (The Lord uses the good ones; the bad ones use the Lord.)
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To: chajin
I marry wife #1. She divorces me. I marry wife #2. We then become Catholic. According to Catholic doctrine, I must live with wife #2 in a sexless relationship in order to receive communion. If wife #1 dies, am I then free to enter into sexual relationship with wife #2 and also receive communion, or is the sexless marriage required in perpetuity?

Although I don't agree with the labels WIFE #1 and WIFE #2, since the whole point is you can only be married to one woman at a time, and the man in question is described as being married to WIFE #1.

That said, there are a number of possibilities. First, you do not state whether the couple are both validly baptized Christians. If they were not at the time of the marriage, a Pauline Privilege may come into play. There can be no sacramental bond if both parties are not baptized, only a natural marriage. So, if one partner were Mormon (baptisms not recognized), or Jewish or Muslim, etc. The natural bond could be dissolved.

Secondly, you don't state what led to the divorce. Assuming that WIFE #1 and HUSBAND #1 both have no earlier purported marriage there are a number of features that have to do with the inability to contract a valid marriage that could result in a declaration of nullity in the "marriage" with WIFE #1. These would include (not exhaustive list) mental disorder (e.g. schizophrenia) at the time of the marriage, severe alcoholism at the time of marriage, an explicit desire to frustrate God's plan by positively locking out the possibility of the transmission of life through the marital act (e.g. getting tubes tied for the explicit purpose of avoiding children from the marriage.)

If a declaration of nullity is obtained, then the marriage with #2 could be blessed. If WIFE #1 dies, any marriage would be dissolved by the death. Might be a good time for a renewal of vows in a proper Catholic ceremony at that time.
6 posted on 09/16/2017 7:01:00 PM PDT by Dr. Sivana (There is no salvation in politics.)
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To: marshmallow

The definition of discernment is being corrupted. True discernment, in a Christian framework, requires grounding in Scripture and being in tune with the Holy Spirit. It is NOT “if it feels good do it”.


7 posted on 09/16/2017 7:12:08 PM PDT by Fred Hayek (The Democratic Party is now the operational arm of the CPUSA)
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To: Dr. Sivana; DuncanWaring

I think I understand this better now :-) thanks


8 posted on 09/16/2017 7:18:17 PM PDT by chajin ("There is no other name under heaven given among people by which we must be saved." Acts 4:12)
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To: marshmallow

It could be said that some things, like adultery, automatically end a marriage.


9 posted on 09/16/2017 7:55:16 PM PDT by Architect of Avalon
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To: marshmallow

Not biblical.


10 posted on 09/16/2017 8:03:04 PM PDT by Raycpa
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To: chajin

If wife #1 dies, you are free to marry wife #2. You are not actually married to wife #2 until there is a wedding in the Catholic Church.


11 posted on 09/16/2017 8:50:33 PM PDT by Arthur McGowan (https://youtu.be/IYUYya6bPGw)
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To: DuncanWaring
You would need to have the second marriage validated, but that's an easy task.

As far as the "black market murder racket," a person who has their spouse killed in order to marry someone else contracts the second marriage invalidly, according to canon law.

12 posted on 09/16/2017 8:51:20 PM PDT by Campion (Halten Sie sich unbedingt an die Lehre!)
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To: Architect of Paradise

Except that the Bible doesn’t say that, so it would be a human tradition. The Gospel, in one passage only, calls “porneia” a “separate case”. “Porneia” is not the usual word for adultery, but means a marriage which is invalid according to the law, that is, just a shack-up arrangement.


13 posted on 09/16/2017 8:53:17 PM PDT by Campion (Halten Sie sich unbedingt an die Lehre!)
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To: chajin
I marry wife #1. She divorces me. I marry wife #2. We then become Catholic.

I understand what you're asking, but, in the example you're describing, the people involved ordinarily wouldn't be permitted to join the Church until their marital situation were regularized. Until then, they're objectively living in an ongoing state of adultery. They can't make a good confession and can't receive communion.

Now in extremely rare cases, it *might* be permitted if the priest were completely convinced that the couple could and would live as brother and sister.

The solution of course is to seek a decree of nullity for the first marriage. Depending on circumstances, that might be extremely easy (Wife #1 was actually your long-lost twin sister!), or not.

14 posted on 09/16/2017 8:59:19 PM PDT by Campion (Halten Sie sich unbedingt an die Lehre!)
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To: marshmallow

The difference between judgment and discernment is that when I do it, it’s discernment,...when you do it,....:^)


15 posted on 09/16/2017 9:01:26 PM PDT by Cvengr ( Adversity in life & death is inevitable; Stress is optional through faith in Christ.)
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To: chajin

If no 1 dies, you have fulfilled your lifetime commitment to that marriage.


16 posted on 09/17/2017 1:00:27 PM PDT by nobamanomore
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To: Dr. Sivana

There can be no sacramental bond if both parties are not baptized, only a natural marriage.

Don’t think so. I was married at 20, my wife was not baptized. I decided to become Catholic, married a Catholic girl, had to get a decree of nullity before doing so. I think if both parties are not baptized possibly so. If one is, definitely you have to do an annulment.


17 posted on 09/17/2017 1:04:57 PM PDT by nobamanomore
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To: chajin

Of course you couldn’t become Catholic till no. 1 was dead, or you had a decree of nullity and a convalidation of your 2nd marriage. I was married for 28 years, went through RCIA,got a decree of nullity, first confession, confirmation, convalidation of my marriage. You also couldn’t have a sexual relationship between your first confession and your convalidation.


18 posted on 09/17/2017 1:10:05 PM PDT by nobamanomore
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To: nobamanomore
. I decided to become Catholic, married a Catholic girl, had to get a decree of nullity before doing so.

There's a presumption of validity for a marriage until proven otherwise. I suspect your Declaration of Nullity was a slam dunk.
19 posted on 09/17/2017 1:47:13 PM PDT by Dr. Sivana (There is no salvation in politics.)
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To: Dr. Sivana

” I suspect your Declaration of Nullity was a slam dunk. “


From what I have seen,most of them are.

.


20 posted on 09/17/2017 1:51:02 PM PDT by Mears
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