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To: From The Deer Stand

I have always wondered how the English word got the term: “Sodomy” from? From whence was it derived? Latin?

And if it were Latin, how did the Latin speakers think of using that word?


5 posted on 08/09/2013 12:29:51 PM PDT by SeekAndFind
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To: SeekAndFind

What does it have to do with Latin?

The meaning of Sodom is the same in all of the semitic languages.


18 posted on 08/09/2013 12:41:42 PM PDT by editor-surveyor (Freepers: Not as smart as I'd hoped they'd be)
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To: SeekAndFind
I have always wondered how the English word got the term: “Sodomy” from? From whence was it derived?

Ummm, you are kidding right?

The sin of SODOM is called sodomy. No great mystery as to the etymology of the word--as the Western world and her languages have been influenced by Christianity and the Bible for 2,000 years now....

Legally though, in English law, "sodomy" was considered any un-natural sex (which was anything other than vaginal intercourse), whether it was between 2 men or a man and a woman.

Since the Supreme Court though, 10 years ago, declared homosexual sodomy a constitutional right....the legal definition of sodomy is moot.

66 posted on 08/09/2013 3:16:35 PM PDT by AnalogReigns (because the real world is not digital...)
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