You wrote: “”Jesus connects the blessedness to every believer, BUT Jesus said, yea, RATHER, blessed are they...
No
he
does
not.
You are reading that into the words. You are free to read that in. But the words themselves do not state that unambiguously. If you were to actually pore over the Scriptures and read Luke 1-2, you would read into those words in Luke 11:28: Hey, folks. My Mother is the prime example of all those who hear the word of God and keep it. She’s blessed, all of those who do what she does are blessed and so yes, venerate my mother as the Biggest Old Hearer and Keeper of the Word ever.”
Which is eggzackly what what Catholics and Orthodox and Martin Luther and John Calvin and John Wesley did.
Your quarrel is with John Wesley’s exegesis, Martin Luther’s, not with mine.
“You are reading that into the words. You are free to read that in.”
Am I going to have to do a sentence diagram and even define each word?
BLESSED, ARE, THEY.
So where’s your Roman exegesis that changes the meaning of those three words?