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To: boatbums

John 10:6 clearly describes Jesus’ discussion of the sheepfold in John 10:7 as a ‘parable.’

No such clarification is written to clarify the discussion in John Chapter 6.

Why is that?

Why would Jesus repeat himself, making it clear that we should ‘knaw’ on his flesh, all while the divine writer fails to clarify, as it is clarified over and over in the Bible when Jesus speaks in parables, if he was in fact speaking in terms of a parable?


104 posted on 03/17/2013 8:17:07 PM PDT by rwilson99 (Please tell me how the words "shall not perish and have everlasting life" would NOT apply to Mary.)
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To: rwilson99; daniel1212
John 10:6 clearly describes Jesus’ discussion of the sheepfold in John 10:7 as a ‘parable.’ No such clarification is written to clarify the discussion in John Chapter 6. Why is that? Why would Jesus repeat himself, making it clear that we should ‘knaw’ on his flesh, all while the divine writer fails to clarify, as it is clarified over and over in the Bible when Jesus speaks in parables, if he was in fact speaking in terms of a parable?

There were many times when Jesus did not "clarify" his words and he used symbolic language in his teaching many times WITHOUT using parables. This was one such case. I kinda think he knew people understood his message if it was given to them to understand by the Holy Spirit. Even in John 6, Jesus says he knew already who would receive him and who wouldn't. Do you think the apostles who stuck around really imagined Jesus was going to lop off a piece of his body and give it to them to gnaw on? What, he was gonna slit his wrists to drain his blood into a cup right there so they could drink it? Again, these were ALL Jewish people who "got it" when someone spoke figuratively. Drinking blood was forbidden in the Old Testament as was eating human flesh. Such talk, if it WAS to be taken literally would have given the religious leaders real grounds to charge Jesus with blasphemy and violating the Law of Moses. They wouldn't have needed to trump up anything to execute him. As a matter of fact, when Jesus was taken before the Sanhedrin and later Pilate, they made no mention at all of it, did they?

Explain to me why it is ONLY in the Gospel of John that this subject was brought up. If it is such a critical doctrine to get right, why is it found NOWHERE else? We find Paul describing the observance of the Lord's Supper, the Love Feast as it was also called, but he said NOTHING about the bread and wine being literally changed into the flesh and blood of Jesus. In fact, if anyone wants to be honest about it, they know good and well that that piece of cracker NEVER physically changes. IT'S ALL SPIRITUAL! You are to imagine or have faith that it did, indeed, change from what it once was even though there is no observable change. Why can't this simple truth be accepted for what it is? Jesus was talking about his REAL flesh being broken and his REAL blood being shed for the propitiation of our sins but the participating in the communion service was to be an outward expression of what had been spiritually consumed - by faith. We eat and drink Christ when we believe in him, when we receive the gift of everlasting life by the grace of God through faith.

108 posted on 03/17/2013 11:57:32 PM PDT by boatbums (God is ready to assume full responsibility for the life wholly yielded to Him.)
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