[Mrs. Don-o]

Maybe the info in this aticle is misleading or I'm not understanding it, but it seems that this decision doesn't change anything. It is always licit to give a contraceptive after rape if it is determined that the woman has not already ovulated. The purpose of the pill is to prevent ovulation; it may also have the effects of altering cervical mucus to impede sperm motility, or even be directly spermicidal.

However it is not to be given after ovulation.

Therefore -- in this time frame --- it could not act as an abortive drug.

This does not violate the teaching against the sin of contraception, because the sin of contraception means the choice of contracepted sex. The raped woman didn't choose sex at all, therefore can't be guilty of "choosing contracepted sex."

Am I missing something here? If so, correct me please!