Im not the least bit embarrassed at reading an entire passage rather than accepting what one ignorant person chooses to pretend is the meaning of a single out of context verse."
Is that your organization's answer also? I accept you do not think that the passage means that God will send a deluding influence, but you have claimed in one of your posts that you are not among those who spout "rote" answers, so please confirm to us that this is your organization's perspective. The RCC actually says, "And for this reason God will send upon them a deluding influence so that they might believe what is false,..." does not mean that it is God deluding the unbelievers?
Oh, only for the past sixteen hundred years according to preserved sermons with a rather lengthy written study of the Holy Spirit that explains those verses along with others a mere eight hundred plus years ago.
this is my point exactly, who amongst the ‘bible alone’ churches isnt being ‘deluded’ then???
who decided that church had it right and the other didnt?
that is my question.....this isnt supposed to be a crap shoot where folks all gamble on their own church’s so-called spirit-led view, and hope for the best.....
and no one will give a concrete answer.....