Did Jesus himself say anything about it or just the writers well after his death?
wolfie, did you bother to read any of the post? Your question is answered completely there.
Hint, ‘In the beginning was the Word......’
Everything we have about Jesus was written after his death. Everything accepted for inclusion in the New Testament was accepted at the time as written by people who personally witnessed the events recorded and met Jesus before the crucifixion, by a writer recording the words of an eyewitness, or by Paul who (according to Acts) encountered Jesus after the crucifixion, on the road to Damascus. It's your call what that means to you, but if the rest of the Bible is God's word, I feel compelled to accept those passages that are inconvenient to me as God's word too.
Those who are worried about translation errors might check Young's Literal Translation; Old Testament and his New Testament. Both are word by word translations that can be checked against old manuscripts from the first 300 years AD. They don't flow as well as KJV, but they allow a check on whether meaning was preserved in the more popular translations (hint: meaning is usually but not quite always preserved by other translations, and it is identical to the original in multiple passages on homosexuality).
Yes. Mark 7:21 records that Jesus said “For from within, out of the heart of men, proceed evil thoughts, adulteries, fornications, murders,” and in Matthew 15:19 Jesus said “For out of the heart proceed evil thoughts, murders, adulteries, fornications, thefts, false witness, blasphemies”. The English word “fornications” He used is translated from the Greek word porneia. Porneia is defined among other things as 1) illicit sexual intercourse,a) adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with animals etc. This clearly shows that Jesus did speak about homosexual behavior and considered it a sin.
"The Word" said something about it WELL BEFORE HIS physical BIRTH, as a matter of fact. bttt
There’s no record of Jesus condemning rape...or child abuse...or stealing....or....murder....or any number of ethical points.
Jesus was though, acknowledged in his lifetime as an orthodox Jew, even a Rabbi (which was an informal, but very honoring, designation meaning, simply, “Teacher.”) He had a lot of enemies among the religious establishment of His day—and they (falsely) accused him of blasphemy—which is the legal reason they pushed Governor Pilate for his crucifixion. However, then or later...He was NEVER accused of varying from the sexual morality of the Jewish scriptures...in fact Jesus made that morality more strict.
Lust was named by Jesus as a form of adultery...(a VERY serious, death-penalty offense in Jewish law). (Matt. 5:27)
Hatred was named by Jesus as a form of murder (also, obviously, a capitol offense, in Jewish law).(Matt. 5:21-25)
Easy divorce (common among 1st C. Jews, and Gentiles) was also condemned (so much so that many have thought all divorce was condemned...which would contradict the Old Testament law) by Jesus.
In the process, he looked back to the ideal marriage—that of Adam and Eve (before the Fall)(Matt. 5:31-32; 19:3-6). This alone....that “Adam was made for Eve, not for Steve!” as some country preachers’ common-sense analysis puts it, proves Jesus did not approve of homosexual pairing.
The author’s premise above though is simple: If you are a Christian, you accept Jesus as God, and, you accept God as having inspired the whole Bible. The Bible, Old Testament and New Testament, clearly condemns any sort of homosexual behavior. Therefore God condemns it....therefore Jesus condemns it.
There is no way to honestly get around it.