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To: SAJ

James VI and I was not “formerly” King of Scots. He was King of Scots, then became King of England and King of Ireland in addition to holding the Scottish throne, all at the same time. He did style himself as “King of Great Britain”, but legally the Kingdoms were separate nations with separate parliaments until 1707.

James VI and I was not Roman Catholic, he was raised as a Protestant. His son Charles I was Protestant, but married to a Roman Catholic. His grand children were mixed, some Catholic, some Protestant.

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8 posted on 10/03/2011 9:57:12 AM PDT by GreenLanternCorps ("Barack Obama" is Swahili for "Jimmy Carter".)
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To: GreenLanternCorps
True. 'Formerly' was an incorrect word. 'Previously solely' would have been a precise formulation. Thank you for pointing out the error.

James II was at minimum a 'closet' Catholic, and so declared upon his deathbed. I had not looked up Charles II, but had presumed due to his opposition to Cromwell and the Commonwealth that he too was Catholic.

James I might have been raised Protestant, but if he was in fact a Protestant as an adult, he was certainly a very curious one. Even the most casual reading of the history of the period shows a number of actions James took that were favoured by the Catholic population and heartily disapproved by the Anglican side. (I could make a cheap joke here about his banning 'the gawff' on Sundays...but there were numerous others.)

10 posted on 10/03/2011 12:00:27 PM PDT by SAJ (What is the next tagline some overweening mod will censor?)
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