Replies

“For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us
to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit: By which also he went and
preached unto the spirits in prison; Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering
of God waited in the days of Noah ...” (1 Peter 3:18-20)

For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged
according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit. (1 Peter 4:6)

It’s amazing that Jesus preached also to the spirits of the disobedient. Appearantly we can repent
and accept Jesus even after death. All is not lost for those who lived without Jesus in their lives.
But there is a problem; how can they be baptized? For Jesus said that

“He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
(Mark 16:16)

and

“... Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit,
he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.” (John 3:5)

The solution to this problem is vicarious baptisms, where the living are baptized for the dead.
This was a common practice amoung the early saints. St. Paul tells us about it in the Bible.

“Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are
they then baptized for the dead? (1 Cor. 15:29)

We know this was a common practice because Paul didn’t have to justify it, but rather, he justified
the rising of the dead by the vicarious baptisms. Clearly, St. Paul and the Corinthians considered
the practice of baptisms for the dead to be a normal part of the Gospel, otherwise there would have
been no justification in St. Paul’s argument.

There is so much confusion to address here. Let's start with the reference to spirits:

"... The term "spirits" is not used in reference to human beings. Humans are never called "spirits" anywhere in the New Testament. The closest reference is Heb 12:23, which makes mention of "spirits of just people made perfect," and in this verse the use of "spirits" is qualified—they are spirits of people.

In 1 Pet 3:19, Peter does not qualify the term "spirits." These are not the spirits of dead people, or Old Testament people. They are simply spirits. When this term occurs in the New Testament without qualification, it refers to demonic spirits (Matt 8:16; Luke 10:20).

Other times it is qualified, but still is typically used as a reference for the demonic powers: "unclean spirits" (Matt 10:1; Mark 1:27; 3:11; . In the bible, human beings are not called spirits, even when they are dead and awaiting resurrection. Spirits are something humans have, not something that they are. Thus, 1 Pet 3:18-20 should be understood as describing Jesus’ proclamation of victory over death to the demonic realm.

reference

OK, the 1st Corinthians mention of baptising for the dead has been dragged out and shot down so many times, but we'll go over it again.

First of all, Christians don't establish doctrine on one single mention of something in the bible. You can have an opinion, you can believe it, but it's not good doctrine. For instance, I believe in a pre-tribulation rapture but I won't die on that hill. And I won't reject someone who is a mid- or post tribber.

Secondly, Paul says THEY are baptising for the dead. Not we are . Google for a site that translates the original Greek into English. Fascinating. I wish I knew Greek.

Third, the subject being discussed was the resurrection. Apparently those who were batising for the dead didn't believe in a resurrection. Paul was asking what therefore the point was.