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To: Uncle Chip
These are two separate occasions. Luke's account took place at the fall of Jerusalem in 70 AD -- followed then by the Diaspora and times of the Gentiles just as Luke recorded that it would.
Matthew's account is yet future, occurring after the times of the Gentiles and the Diaspora.

Hmmm...I disagree with that type of thinking for it's too unbelievable to think that Jesus' words meant two different time periods. Matthew wrote to the Jews, and Luke wrote to the Gentiles who weren't all that acquainted with the prophecies of the OT. In 70 AD there were many gentile Christians intermingled in the population of Jerusalem, and Lukes plain words gave them the warning of the prophecy. Notice that Luke didn't have to give a warning about the Sabbath day - Gentiles ignored particular days.

16 posted on 06/20/2010 7:54:07 PM PDT by Ken4TA (Truth hurts, especially when it goes against what one believes.)
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To: Ken4TA

I recommend that you use some good Bible software, cut and paste Matt 28 and Luke 21 into a 2 column table in Word, and then do a side by side comparison of the two sections. There are too many differences to harmonize to claim they are speaking of the same event. Even the questions are different.


26 posted on 06/21/2010 10:02:53 AM PDT by dartuser ("Palin 2012 ... nothing else will do.")
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