Somehow, the contradiction with Lk 24:45 needs to be reconciled. The best explanation I have heard is that "3 days and 3 nights" was a Hebrew expression that literally meant 3 days. I do not know Hebrew and my Greek is woefully lacking, so it is difficult for my to go back to original docs or early copies and determine what was meant 2000 years ago.
“Three days and three nights” are three days in any language; but in context, in the Scriptures it is symbolic of Christ -— LITERALLY, called an ‘expression’ or not.