Posted on 02/09/2009 7:43:26 AM PST by greyfoxx39
Your bore me Ram with such infantile responses that defy sincerity and reason. One is a failure to support your own allegations, the second identifying the true nature and extent of the example I found.
Fundamentally the fact that the dispensations exist at all is exactly the Doctrinal argument I am laying out. Polygamy is the exception rather than the rule. But it is not contrary to God in certain contexts.
Doctrine is not based upon exceptions to the doctrine - you have the cart before the horse. In the case of the Catholic dispositions, they were an instance of going into a country that already had polygamy and provided a way to convert over to monogamy. Did it condone the practice - the simple fact that they were designed to bring about monogamy and discontinue polygamy.
What is intriguing is the extant some go to condemn mormon polygamy whilst denying and minimizing their own denominational history with the practice.
If those dispensations went around promoting polygamy, you may have a point. But they didn't and you don't. They promoted monogamy.
I condemn mormon polygamy for its gross hypocrisy of the behavior of its leaders. Practicing it illegally throughout the course of its history - against the law while denying it and condemning it at the same time. Furthermore, instituting open adultery by marrying wives of other men, while they were still married to them. Please show me where that is biblical - if you can.
Placemark
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