Translating "passover" as "Easter" here would ruin the metaphor.
Acts 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put [him] in prison, and delivered [him] to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
Hmm...you would prefer "after Passover" or "after the Passover" here?
"Pascua" in Spanish is either "Easter" or "Passover" depending on the context.
I would not have interpreted "Easter" here as Herod's pagan celebration though, but rather as a commemoration of the Resurrection, even if it wasn't officially done yet.
It's not a question of what I prefer, but rather of what it is.
Why not translate "Pascha" as it is translated in all other places? Why make an exception? Are metaphors more important than accuracy?