[Diego1618]

But if you celebrate, with thanks and reflection, the miracle and gift of the Resurrection and the Promise it fulfills, then you’re on message.

Herein lies one of the problems with Easter celebrations. Like the article says....it can be proved conclusively that the resurrection did not occur on a Sunday morning.....nor the crucifixion on a Friday afternoon. So why would one want to follow a tradition that is obviously in error? Maybe because they have been deceived [Matthew 24:4][Mark 13:6]?

"First day of the Week" occurs 8 times in modern day translations.....never with a religious intent; [Matthew 28:1][Mark 16:2][Mark 16:9][Luke 24:1][John 20:1][John 20:19][Acts 20:7] and [1 Corinthians 16:1]. These are the verses the Church used to establish their false resurrection day. The problem being.......the Greek in all cases says, "On one of the Sabbaths"! With an illiterate laity....they (the mainstream clergy) were able to carry on this fraud for most of their history.

[DouglasKC]

Thank you for the response Diego and welcome to the thread. :-)

[AnalogReigns]

"Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days: Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ." (Col. 2:16,17)

I rest my case. Judging people on the holidays they celebrate is, according to God's Word, legalism defined.

[Always Right]

Herein lies one of the problems with Easter celebrations. Like the article says....it can be proved conclusively that the resurrection did not occur on a Sunday morning.....nor the crucifixion on a Friday afternoon. So why would one want to follow a tradition that is obviously in error? Maybe because they have been deceived

There is nothing wrong with celebrating Jesus's resurrection 365 days a year. Whether it was a Monday or Thursday or whatever makes no difference.

[Diamond]

"First day of the Week" occurs 8 times in modern day translations.....never with a religious intent; [Matthew 28:1][Mark 16:2][Mark 16:9][Luke 24:1][John 20:1][John 20:19][Acts 20:7] and [1 Corinthians 16:1]... The problem being.......the Greek in all cases says, "On one of the Sabbaths"! With an illiterate laity....they (the mainstream clergy) were able to carry on this fraud for most of their history.

What is "never with a 'religious' intent supposed to mean? Since I'm one of the illiterate laity, why don't you explicate to me the Greek in Mark 16:9, one of your own examples, which is translated, "...on the first day of the week", more specifically, why you think the grammar does not indicate the day of the week that Jesus arose early, and why you think it should be translated, "On one of the Sabbaths", as opposed to "early on the first day of the week".

Cordially,