It's fine to read others to get the translations others place on them, but I'm really old school. It's the KJV, and ya like it! Thee, thou, ye.
Get thee behind me, Satan!
How are you going to make that better? Do we update Shakespeare? Yes, but not usually and not entirely.
What next, crucifixion = owie?
Are you suggesting that Jesus actually spoke in Shakespearean English, hence the 1611 translation's distinct verbiage?
Do you know why the KJV uses "thee, thou, ye, your, thine"? It's actually quite important. And it's a clue why NOBODY EVER interprets Romans 8:28 correctly.