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To: dangus

actually, that's the point: read post #32: there is no significant difference between wearing a condom or not, when having sex monogamously with regular marital frequency (well, if things are going well). .99^500=~0.

Studies have found a difference. I think you are equating exposure with infection, which isn't what happens. Check out the source linked from post #41. To add another statistic, this study from rural Uganda of couples with either wife or husband infected, and no mention of condom use, has infection rates of 11.6 to 16 per 100 person years. Compare that to the "always use condoms" group in my previous post, with a rate of 1.14 per 100 person years.

54 posted on 05/04/2006 8:23:36 AM PDT by retMD
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To: retMD

No, I am not mixing exposure with infection. I plainly spoke only of exposure, since that is the only factor we know condom use can effect. However, I will note that I did mention one factor which causes monogamy to promote contracting the virus, and did leave out a very important factor which make promiscuity lead to catching the virus more easily: co-inciding infections. The presence of many sexually transmitted diseases make transmission of the virus into the bloodstream much easier, such as open Herpes sores. And other sexually transmitted diseases make HIV transmission more likely to result in symptomatic AIDS, presumably by impairing the immune system.


59 posted on 05/04/2006 11:11:53 AM PDT by dangus
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