To: kattracks
While obviously "normalizing" pedophilia is crazy (no pun intended), would removing it from the DSM-IV actually help court cases against pedophiles? It would still be illegal, and this could remove the mental-illness defense.
Burgulary is illegal and socially condemned. but a taste for it is not listed as a mental illness and can't be used for defense (though they certainly try a bunch of other avenues).
Just a thought,
LQ
To: LizardQueen
It would still be illegal, and this could remove the mental-illness defense.Mental illness has NEVER been a defense to a charge of child molestation. On the contrary, the peculiar nature of the mental sickness of pedophilia (e.g, as evidenced by the extremely high recidivism rate) has always been used to ENHANCE punishment because long confinement has been considered the only practical way to keep the sickos away from children.
To: LizardQueen
I happen to agree. Unfortunately most people here are equating "removal of classificaton as mental illness" with "declaring it to be a great and wonderful thing", when there is no evidence that this is the case. I see nothing here that would suggest that the APA is defining child sexual abuse as a "good" thing (or even a "not bad" thing), but that will be the perception of many ignorant fools. I suspect, however, that political pressure will end this debate rather than actual research.
An act is not "right" just because it's not brought about by mental illness. Declassifying pedophilia as a mental illness would not justify sex with children.
208 posted on
06/12/2003 3:52:59 PM PDT by
Dimensio
(Sometimes I doubt your committment to Sparkle Motion!)
To: LizardQueen
While obviously "normalizing" pedophilia is crazy (no pun intended), would removing it from the DSM-IV actually help court cases against pedophiles? It would still be illegal, and this could remove the mental-illness defense. Nope, won't work that way.
The argument will run along these lines:
a) The behavior is within normal parameters of acceptable behavior, because if it wasn't it would be abnormal behavior and it isn't listed so in the DSM-IV.
b) If the behavior is normal, then what right does the State have in regulating normal behavior between consenting people?
c) Children consent to all sorts of things, joining a sports team, working on a school paper, participating in religion, why should they not have consent over their own sexuality? Lower the age of consent to 12.
This is the agenda of these people.
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