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To: codebreaker
There are reasons for thinking that Shakespeare was what we would now call bisexual. This was not a concept that existed in Shakespeare's day, so not only would he not have not identified himself on that basis, he wouldn't even have used such a word for himself.

This was the era of the wars of religion, when persons with the wrong views, like Catholics under Elizabeth, were threatened with persecution and worse. We know Shakespeare's father was a Catholic even after that became illegal, and there is good reason to believe that Shakespeare himself was educated as a Catholic when that was illegal. He was certainly not an open Catholic during his adult career, but I think there is no way to know what his real private opinions were. The sympathy he exhibits for Catholic kings of England in his history plays and for Catholic priests in plays like Romeo and Juliet suggests to me he remained a Catholic at heart. But, whether or not that is true, his family history and his youth gave him reason to sympathize with Catholics, who were regarded as the arch-traitors in Elizabeth's England. That gave him skepticism and sympathy for all sorts of characters, including villains.

And, in his day, religious loyalties and sympathies counted for far more than sexual orientation. Even a semiopen pederast like Christopher Marlowe identified himself more as a freethinking atheist than as a pederast.

11 posted on 04/21/2002 5:17:10 PM PDT by aristeides
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To: aristeides
Add that he was an actor. A theatre person. Near obligatory randy pants.

Though he was also on the members roles at St Savoris parish, later to become Soutwark Cathedral, just east along the road from the Globe.

...Though again, With all his theatre pals.

20 posted on 04/21/2002 5:41:53 PM PDT by onedoug
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To: aristeides
It just toasts me that people find some kind of satisfaction out of trying to explain the motivations of long dead famous people, especially so, when it is one of the poeple I most respect. We can't even agree on what he wrote or what he stole, but we now feel confident in espousing his sexual orientation. His ability to describe the universal human condition defies anyones attempt to define him; because you must use his own writings which were made to describe to you your condition, to describe him. Good luck.
44 posted on 04/21/2002 6:53:13 PM PDT by TheHound
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To: aristeides
We know Shakespeare's father was a Catholic even after that became illegal, and there is good reason to believe that Shakespeare himself was educated as a Catholic when that was illegal.

Are you talking about the guy named Shakespeare or the one who wrote everything attributed to him?
71 posted on 04/21/2002 9:06:10 PM PDT by aruanan
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To: aristeides
...there are reasons for thinking that Shakespeare was what we would now call bisexual. This was not a concept that existed in Shakespeare's day...

Huh?

What about King James I?

81 posted on 04/22/2002 3:12:56 AM PDT by Byron_the_Aussie
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