I'm having trouble framing this, too. We are all descended
from the same ancient population, else whence? Is this
a distinction without a difference, or is it a way of saying
they have found a profoundly primitive human genotype,
but lack the testosterone to say so?
Most of the DNA studies dealing with ancients is usually done using mtDNA (the female line), this study apparently was done using the Y chromosome (male line) and in doing so an ancient population 'popped' up that otherwise would not have using the mtDNA. Am I reading this wrong?