The date is set by federal code to be the first Tuesday after the first Monday in November. Been that way for well over 100 years if I recall.
I think where he may be going, or could go, is questioning why it is OK for some states to flaunt the federal code by having “rolling elections” that allow people to vote some 30 days before the election and/or to force feed them ballots by mail based on outdated registration rolls... why can the date be moved forward, and not backward?
Early voting should be illegal. Absentee voting should be illegal as well.