But what if judge simply “thought it was a good idea” or that the IRS “didin’t give a good enough reason” or “Trump didn’t wash his hands after going pee-pee.”
So, this situation is binary...the IRS did or didn't comply with the public notice requirement. If they did, then proving it is a simple matter of showing the date it was published in the federal register. If they didn't, then the judge made the correct ruling.
IMHO, even an obama judge would have a difficult time ruling against the IRS if they gave proper public notice.