Can somebody who read the judge’s rationale help me understand this ruling? Transvestites were already barred from serving. Obama signs an order saying they can serve Jan 1 2018 if I read correctly. Trump decides that order is bad and strikes it. There is no law passed by congress here. Thus it’s just one executive order overturning another executive order. What’s the court have to do with this in the first place, I mean what is their jurisdiction?
>Can somebody who read the judge’s rationale help me understand this ruling? Transvestites were already barred from serving. Obama signs an order saying they can serve Jan 1 2018 if I read correctly. Trump decides that order is bad and strikes it. There is no law passed by congress here. Thus it’s just one executive order overturning another executive order. What’s the court have to do with this in the first place, I mean what is their jurisdiction?
American judges don’t need a reason to make law. As judge dread says, “They are the law”. When a liberal prats on about the rule of law, what they actually mean is the rule of judges making law.