I'm a resident of Idaho. I had to work in San Diego for a while, but was not a "resident of California". I was subjected to income taxation by California (and Idaho and Nebraska), yet my only valid call on an elected official was in Idaho where I own my home. It's a travesty that I'm compelled to pay income tax to 3 states, yet only allowed representation where I'm a resident. How is that persons who are not legal residents get counted for purposes of determining proportional representation in the US House of Representatives or apportionment of state representatives? If you can't vote, why is your presence a factor in determining representation? It should be apportioned based on the number of legal voters. The court screwed up this opinion.
If you have two parents (both U.S. citizens registered to vote) with five kids in a household, should this count as two people for the purpose of Congressional representation, or seven?
I don't think there was ever a time in U.S. history when the answer to this question would have been "two."