To: so_real
And at the time the constitution was written, women were lesser citizens than men (could not vote for example) and the framers never would have taken the mother’s US citizenship alone to bestow upon a child born abroad.
77 posted on
01/10/2016 9:45:44 AM PST by
Abby4116
To: Abby4116
Without a doubt, you are correct. The only situation wherein the status of the mother was taken into consideration was in the case of children born of slaves to their owners. By adopting "partus sequitur ventrem" doctrine, these children remained property and not heirs. It's ugly, but true. And confirms exactly what you said; in all other cases the birthright followed the father exclusively.
107 posted on
01/10/2016 10:55:05 AM PST by
so_real
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