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To: lewislynn

So what’s the rule? Do you need 2/3 of all House members to override, meaning 2/3 of the full 435 House membership, or is it 2/3 of members present and voting that day? It seems there are always a few members of Congress who are absent and miss votes.


13 posted on 06/19/2015 12:06:07 PM PDT by Dilbert San Diego
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To: Dilbert San Diego

always voting on the particular bill


15 posted on 06/19/2015 12:24:17 PM PDT by Sacajaweau
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To: Dilbert San Diego

Good question. I’m not sure.

It seems to me that a strict, literal, interpretation of the Constitution would mean 2/3 of the entire House.

However, given the history of congress as regards strict, literal reading of that document, they may have made their own “rule” regarding the issue.


18 posted on 06/19/2015 12:41:45 PM PDT by WayneS (Trying to save myself from those who want to save me from myself...)
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To: Dilbert San Diego
Article I, Section 7 of the US Constitution says "two thirds of that House" to override a presidential veto. The section doesn't separate House and Senate by those names, it calls each body a "House" and both have to pass a vetoed bill by that margin.

By way of comparison, the president's Article II, Section 2 treaty making power is expressed "provided two thirds of the Senators present concur".

The plain language is that for veto override, the number is two thirds of members "seated" (elected, not dead, etc. - sometimes less than the full 435 provided), not two thirds of those present.

25 posted on 06/19/2015 1:42:42 PM PDT by Cboldt
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