[OneWingedShark]

Explain to me....

If Oklahoma passes a law that says:
“Based on the precepts of Sharia....”
“According to Sharia...”
“To comply with Sharia...”
“To allow Sharia...”

or any other wording, how is that not a clear violation of “Congress shall make no respecting an establishment of religion..”?

Logically it doesn't the underlines shows exactly what the first amendment applies to, and since there is no congress in the states, incorporating it wouldn't do jack to the states… except that the evil incorporation does use the 1st amendment conjoined with the 14th to bind the states; this means that there is some magic whereby the actual text is changed and then applied. It is by such that the FedGov (especially the courts) strip us of rights.

Question: when will these evils become insufferable?

[Bryan24]

I’m sure this judge holds the position that Congress = All government (Federal, State, Local) as do all progressives. I was asking from THAT angle.