Yes, I have, top to bottom, several times. I did say that the British version is different to the US. You seem to think that as it is different to the US, its inferior or simply dosent exist.
BTW, my constitution gives me a constitutional right to vote. Yours dosent.
As a second point, (and I know this will come off as trying to be controversial, but I don't intend it that way) is there anything, other than what the people at Downing Street and Westminster feel, that says they are obligated to let people in Scotland vote or have a say? Anything they have done in that regard is simply their "generosity and magnanimity, no?
Such is our Republican form of government. It is one check against mob rule.
The Constitution does indeed and explicitly recognize that enfranchised voters must exist, in several places. The most basic is a Constitutional requirement that every State must provide a representative form of government. That is not possible without the Franchise.
Beyond that, the US Constitution DOES guarantee a right to vote; it specifically qualifies certain people as adults for the purposes of voting but otherwise does not specifically say who may vote because the matter of determining the qualifications and rules for election are not part of the basic Federal charter; that is a power reserved for the States.
Brush up on your US Constitutional Law if you intend to comment on it.