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1 posted on 12/10/2012 5:49:29 AM PST by Kaslin
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To: Kaslin

If I understand the argument correctly, he’s saying that at fairly low levels of income, if you regard the loss of government benefits as a “tax”, then the effective tax rate as you move from 11,000 of income to 15,000 of income, then you effectively pay as much as 60% “tax” on that marginal gain.

((income - taxes) minus lost benefits) = effective tax rate

Is that basically it?


2 posted on 12/10/2012 6:56:02 AM PST by babble-on
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