That is hardly true. It is more like the colonial powers from which they grew. Think of the Napoleonic, British, and Russian empires.
Further while the communist collective was more successful they did maintain national borders of their member states. In effect it's a stated difference that never existed in reality. In practice they were exactly the same.
You are confusing the international with the Russians, which they regard as an aberration of communism.
Nazis also stated that they believed in private property and private business while communists belived in common ownership of the means of production.
They weren't running around the countryside rounding up farmers and assigning them to government housing and collective farms. There was no German analogue to the Kulaks.
When the stated differences never actually existed except in arguements between dedicated ideologues can you really call them differences never mind distinctions?
Tautological hand-wave.
It is factually true or did you miss the Nazi invasions? Do you claim that Russia didn't do exactly the same thing? We do not need to compare them to their precursors to see exactly what they did. They attempted to spread their ideology by force. Of course a reasonable person knows that their ideology was simply a rationale for them to impose tyranny over the masses, but that is beside the point.
You are confusing the international with the Russians, which they regard as an aberration of communism.
Of course they do...they say the same thing of every communist failure but the facts have a way of intruding upon their utopian ideals. The USSR was "THE" communist ideal until the truth started to leak out.
They weren't running around the countryside rounding up farmers and assigning them to government housing and collective farms. There was no German analogue to the Kulaks.
Ignoring the jewish farmers that were rounded up and assigned to "government housing" I assume? I guess you don't consider nazi concentration camps being similar to russians starving their peasents?
Tautological hand-wave.
Please. The differences you put forward were never in practice. They are theoretical differences according to the ideologues of said political systems. Are you suggesting that because Nazis and Communists claim that there are differences in their respective systems, that these differences don't have to actually exist in practice for them to be considered actuall differences?