I just know I’m gonna get flamed for this one ... but I gotta ask anyway. (So please excuse the dumb question.)
If you have to forcibly medicate someone for months to make him understand the charges against him, how can he not be considered insane at the time of the incident?
AZ doesn’t have insanity as a form of innocence, we have it as a type of guilt (”guilty but insane”) so it’s a moot point. He’s going to spend a lot of time incarcerated, and there will be intensive psychiatric care during that time whether or not the word “insane” is tied to his guilt.