How could it possibly work out for the best??? Even if this helps the Republicans in November's elections, which it probably will, and even if this is first crop of Republicans in decades with the political will and testicular fortitude to repeal this shit (and how likely is THAT?), it still doesn't repeal the ruling! IOW, a federal program as large, as wrong, and as intrusive as O-Care is Constitutionally hunky-dory, not just for health care, but in any other area as well! The only way to fix THAT now is with a Constitutional amendment and what are the odds of that???
The question, which those like Mark Levin who do know the Constitution asks, is where in the Constitution is there the ability to tax nothing?
The Constitution recognizes four types of taxes: 1) “Duties, Imposts and Excises,” generally called indirect taxes, which must be uniform throughout the United States (Art. I, sec. 8, cl. 1); 2) capitation, or other direct taxes, which may only be imposed “in Proportion to the Census” among the states (Art 1, sec. 2, cl. 3; Art. 1, sec. 9, cl. 4); export taxes, which are prohibited (Art. 1, sec. 9, cl. 4); and the income tax, permitted by the 16th Amendment, which can be imposed without apportionment among the states. Where in any of these categories is there the permission to exact a tax on an individual for not doing something? Is this tax a drug induced hallucination?