Probably not nullify related existing laws but would deny future similar perversions of the "commerce" clause.
It's useful to note that corrupt Justice Deparments have not been successful using any other existing clause in the Constitution to abuse citizens with a similar, creative, swiss army knife interpretation similar to "interstate commerce."
>>Specifically, would existent laws deriving their ‘justification’ from that clause be null and void automatically; or would each law have to be challenged individually (also giving the government the time/ability to justify that law via some other route)?
>
>Probably not nullify related existing laws but would deny future similar perversions of the “commerce” clause.
See now, that just sounds really, REALLY screwed up. That would be like the government saying, “yes the 21st amendment repealed the 18th amendment in whole, but, you know all those laws we passed prohibiting alcohol are still in effect.”
It makes no sense to me how such reasoning could be in our judicial-system, and much-less that it should be considered valid.