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To: ml/nj
Actually the way it worked is that Mr. Jefferson was a native-born citizen of Virginia. Virginia was one of the united states and so he was also considered a native-born citizen of the United States. He certainly was never naturalized.

Then why the need for the "...or a Citizen of the United States, at the time of the Adoption of this Constitution..." clause in Article II, Section 1?

Regarding Rathergate and your other blather, non-experts were able to determine from images of the fake memo that it was indeed fake.

Of course they were. I'll also point out that two-thirds of the experts who actually saw the original documents were unwilling to say for the record if they were genuine. CBS ran the story anyway.

I would guess that 99.99%+ of such "experts" voted for John Kerry.

Of course you do.

470 posted on 03/18/2009 9:03:15 AM PDT by Non-Sequitur
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To: Non-Sequitur
Then why the need for the "...or a Citizen of the United States, at the time of the Adoption of this Constitution..." clause in Article II, Section 1?

You should be able to answer this question, but I guess it would render hours of your smoke blowing irrelevant.

Jefferson and his contemporaries were not natural-born citizens as understood by themselves, the Framers. The Framers wanted to restrict the Presidency to this class of citizen, but there were none who would qualify during the early years of the Republic, so they grandfathered themselves and others who were citizens at the time of the adoption of the Constitution.

ML/NJ

473 posted on 03/18/2009 9:16:16 AM PDT by ml/nj
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