“The Old Testament was not written in Hebrew. It was translated into Hebrew from Aramaic and other earlier languages. FAIL NUMBER 1” [excerpt]Which would be your Strawman #1
“Stone Tablets written by the finger of God? PROOF? Evidence? or just your faith. FAIL NUMBER 2” [excerpt]You don't learn very quick do you.
¶ And he gave unto Moses, when he had made an end of communing with him upon mount Sinai, two tables of testimony, tables of stone, written with the finger of God.
Exodus 31:18
“Where, pray tell, does it say that he was literate. Stood up for to read IS NOT how The ARAMAIC is translated. It was translated as he stood to be read to in several languages and the meaning is he heard the reading. FAIL NUMBER 3.” [excerpt]The Greek word ἀναγινώσκω is not a word that is used to describe what an illiterate person does with written text.
“He was shown a passage. Her did not read nor was it implied that he read the passage. According to the Bible. FAIL NUMBER 4” [excerpt]All coming from a guy who can't keep Moses and Noah straight.
Since the discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls, this old liberal high criticism does not hold water. They (the DSS) predate the Peshitta Targumim by hundreds of years (in some cases) and are written primarily in Hebrew. And every Old Covenant Book is represented with the exception of Esther. They can be reckoned as contemporary to, or older than the earliest extant Aramaic texts.
The DSS make the oldest extent copies of the Old Testament Hebraic, *not* Aramaic.
Undoubtedly some parts of the Old Testament were Aramaic, those parts written in Babylon particularly, and the Hebrews proclaim that heritage. But there is no evidence that the entire Old Testament "was translated into Hebrew from Aramaic and other earlier languages."
[JayRockin91:] Where, pray tell, does it say that he was literate. Stood up for to read IS NOT how The ARAMAIC is translated. It was translated as he stood to be read to in several languages and the meaning is he heard the reading. (emphasis mine)
I would really like to see some evidence for an Aramaic origin for the Books of Luke/Acts. The idea that an educated gentile physician, writing a letter to a Grecian man residing in Greece, would write that letter in Aramaic is simply ludicrous to assume.
To further the absurdity of the thought, simply read the two books, where Luke will be found translating Hebrew and Aramaic names and locations for his dear Greek friend, Theophilus.
Every extant manuscript of note is in fact, in the Greek, and the whole notion is simply speculation made of whole cloth.
@Fichori:
I have no argument with you here, FRiend Fichori, rather that I agree with you. I just could not leave these points untested.