Whats’ with the dotted lines across Spain? There was no water route across spain in 325BC, was there?
The Midi canal wasn’t completed until the 17th century, IIRC.
Or do the dotted lines indicated Pytheas just crossed land the usual way?
Looking at it I don’t understand why he would unnecessarily cross the Pyranees? Couldn’t he just have gone across Southern France to the Garonne river and then take a boat to Brittany, then to Britain, Isle of Man and elsewhere?
Guessing that the Carthaginians were blocking the Straits of Gibraltar? Perhaps the overland leg was a way to avoid a sort of naval blockade or pirates?