If I'm losing the amount that used to be withheld, which would take care of my tax liability normally, then get the same take-home, but with a big sales tax that I now have to pay, my effective pay has been slashed big time. In essence, you're still paying both taxes (and no chance for any refund on the lost 'withholding').
I'm really confused now. If we workers are selling our services, our wage is the price of those services. That wage is agreed upon in a contract. My understanding was that our taxes come out of the money allocated for that wage, not out of a pool of general money in the employer's hands. If this understanding is correct, the employer can't just arbitrarily lower a salary because taxes are no longer being withheld from it; it wasn't the employer's money anyway. If they wanted to lower salaries, wouldn't they have to renegotiate with every current wage-earner?
Of course, this issue only applies to current salaries/contracts. I can see that things might be different for people starting new jobs.
I hope I'm not being naive here. But wouldn't there also be some savings for employers if they no longer have to do the government's money-collection for them (at least on the payroll end)?