True, our Constitution, in Art VI, explicitly establishes that it cannot be breached by any government entity.
-- Fed/State or local, ALL officials are pledged to support the US Constitution and its Amendments as the supreme Law of the Land.
"Congress shall make no law" meant what it said, but did not mean that only Congress was so restricted.
Why not? That's what it says, "Congress", not the states.
Art VI, and the rest of my comment explains "why not". -- Did you bother to try to understand them?
The 10th made clear that States were also prohibited powers, among them the power to infringe on peoples RKBA's.
After the civil war, southern States were denying freed slaves the RKBA's, under the pretense that the BOR's did not apply. The 14th was ratified to end that controversy.
from Article. VI.:
"This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States which shall be made in Pursuance thereof; and all Treaties made, or which shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding."
Amendment X
"The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people."
Where does it say the "Congress" means "the states"?
The way I read Article VI is that the Constitution can not be over-ridden by state law and that any existing state law is subservient to the new Constitution. Nowhere does it say the restrictions on Congress also apply to the states.
The tenth amendment reserves rights not given to Congress and not prohibited to the states, to the people or the states.
I'm curious. Is this something that they are teaching in schools these days? -- that the original Constitutional restrictions on Congress also applied to the states?