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To: A strike
And those citations (one of which is from the very first legal treatise published in America, from back in 1795, when most of the Founders were still living) weren't clear enough about the applicability of common law?

Why can’t you simply answer the question of WHY it was a qualification without going into all the bullSchiff about ‘such and such a judge said this’?

Because the very nature of the common law system is based on court decisions and case precedent. If something is not defined explicitly constitutionally or by statute, then one may resort to the common law for an understanding of terms.

You may not like it, but that's the way it is.

50 posted on 01/13/2024 2:43:44 PM PST by Ultra Sonic 007 (There is nothing new under the sun.)
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To: Ultra Sonic 007

As I noted your ‘arguments’ are distinctly similar to ‘What is a woman?’.


51 posted on 01/13/2024 2:58:43 PM PST by A strike (Words can have gender, humans cannot.)
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To: Ultra Sonic 007
WHY was it a qualification if it was the same as anyone born here?
52 posted on 01/13/2024 3:02:11 PM PST by A strike (Words can have gender, humans cannot.)
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To: Ultra Sonic 007

So your position is that the Founding Fathers f’d up writing the Constitution but these guys 80+ years fixed it, right?


54 posted on 01/13/2024 3:17:25 PM PST by A strike (Words can have gender, humans cannot.)
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