Why can’t you simply answer the question of WHY it was a qualification without going into all the bullSchiff about ‘such and such a judge said this’?
Because the very nature of the common law system is based on court decisions and case precedent. If something is not defined explicitly constitutionally or by statute, then one may resort to the common law for an understanding of terms.
You may not like it, but that's the way it is.
As I noted your ‘arguments’ are distinctly similar to ‘What is a woman?’.
So your position is that the Founding Fathers f’d up writing the Constitution but these guys 80+ years fixed it, right?